Maternal & Newborn Nursing Practice Test
These 25 questions test your knowledge of antepartum, intrapartum, and postpartum care — including high-risk pregnancy complications, fetal monitoring, labour progression, newborn assessment, and recognising emergencies that require immediate nursing action.
Maternal & Newborn Nursing Quiz
Test your maternal and newborn nursing knowledge with NCLEX-style questions on labour, postpartum care, and newborn assessment.
Question 1: A 28-year-old woman at 8 weeks gestation presents to the ED with sharp right lower quadrant pain, vaginal spotting, and a positive pregnancy test. Her BP is 88/54 and HR is 118. The nurse's PRIORITY action is:
Answer: B — Sharp unilateral pain + vaginal bleeding + positive pregnancy test + hemodynamic instability = ruptured ectopic pregnancy until proven otherwise. This is a surgical emergency. Notify the provider immediately and prepare for OR. Delay causes hemorrhagic shock and death.
Question 2: A patient at 32 weeks gestation reports sudden, painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. She denies contractions. The nurse's FIRST action should be:
Answer: B — Painless bright red bleeding in the third trimester is placenta previa until proven otherwise. NEVER perform a vaginal exam — it can cause catastrophic hemorrhage. Apply fetal monitor, establish IV access, and notify the provider immediately.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a patient at 36 weeks gestation who suddenly develops severe abdominal pain described as 'board-like rigidity,' dark vaginal bleeding, and fetal bradycardia. The nurse should suspect:
Answer: C — Abruptio placentae (placental abruption) presents with sudden severe abdominal pain, a rigid/tender uterus, dark vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress. Unlike placenta previa, pain IS present. This is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate delivery.
Question 4: A patient at 28 weeks is diagnosed with gestational hypertension. Her BP is 158/104 and she reports a severe headache and visual disturbances. The nurse recognizes these findings as signs of:
Answer: B — BP ≥160/110 + severe headache + visual changes = preeclampsia with severe features. Priority: IV magnesium sulfate (seizure prophylaxis), antihypertensives (labetalol or hydralazine), continuous fetal monitoring, and delivery planning. Eclampsia requires the same plus airway management.
Question 5: A patient with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse assesses: respirations 10/min, absent deep tendon reflexes, and urine output 20 mL/hr. The nurse's PRIORITY action is:
Answer: B — These are signs of magnesium toxicity: RR <12, loss of DTRs, and oliguria. The antidote is calcium gluconate 1g IV. Stop the infusion FIRST. Normal therapeutic range for mag is 4–7 mEq/L. DTRs are the earliest sign of toxicity.
Question 6: A patient at 24 weeks gestation has a fasting blood glucose of 105 mg/dL and a 1-hour glucose challenge test of 185 mg/dL. The nurse anticipates which diagnosis and primary teaching point?
Answer: B — A 1-hour GCT >140 mg/dL triggers a 3-hour GTT for diagnosis. GDM increases risk of macrosomia, birth trauma, neonatal hypoglycemia, and future Type 2 DM. Management: diet, glucose monitoring, and insulin if needed. GDM typically resolves postpartum.
Question 7: A primigravida at 39 weeks has been in labor for 14 hours. Her cervix has not changed from 6 cm over the last 3 hours and contractions are irregular. The nurse recognizes this as:
Answer: B — Failure to progress (active phase arrest) is defined as no cervical change for ≥4 hours with adequate contractions, or ≥6 hours with inadequate contractions. Oxytocin augmentation or cesarean birth may be required. The provider must be notified.
Question 8: A nurse is monitoring fetal heart rate and notes the FHR drops from 145 to 90 bpm beginning at the peak of contractions and returns to baseline after the contraction ends. The nurse interprets this as:
Answer: B — Late decelerations mirror contractions but begin AFTER the peak and recover AFTER the contraction ends. This indicates uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia. Priority: reposition (left lateral), O2 by mask, stop Pitocin, IV bolus, notify provider.
Question 9: A nurse notes a sudden, prolonged fetal heart rate deceleration to 60 bpm on the monitor. Upon vaginal exam, the nurse feels a pulsating loop of umbilical cord in the vagina. The nurse's IMMEDIATE action is:
Answer: C — Cord prolapse is a obstetric emergency. The priority is to relieve cord compression by manually elevating the fetal presenting part off the cord while calling for emergency cesarean. Never push the cord back. Knee-chest or Trendelenburg uses gravity to assist.
Question 10: A patient delivers vaginally after 18 hours of labor. One hour postpartum the nurse assesses the fundus and finds it is firm, at the umbilicus, and deviated to the right. Lochia is rubra. The nurse's BEST action is:
Answer: C — A fundus deviated to the right almost always indicates a full bladder pushing the uterus aside. The priority is to have the patient void or insert a urinary catheter. If the uterus remains displaced after voiding, notify the provider.
Question 11: A postpartum patient who delivered 2 hours ago is soaking one perineal pad every 15 minutes. Her fundus is boggy and displaced. Vital signs: BP 88/56, HR 122. The nurse recognizes this as:
Answer: B — Soaking >1 pad/hour + boggy uterus + hemodynamic instability = postpartum hemorrhage (PPH). Most common cause is uterine atony. Priority: uterine massage, oxytocin (or other uterotonics), IV fluid resuscitation, blood typing, and provider notification.
Question 12: A nurse is assessing a postpartum patient on day 3 using the BUBBLE-HE mnemonic. The patient reports breast engorgement and a temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F). Which assessment finding requires the nurse to notify the provider?
Answer: C — This presentation — unilateral breast tenderness, warmth, redness, fever, and flu-like symptoms — is mastitis, typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Treatment: antibiotics (dicloxacillin), continued breastfeeding or pumping, warm compresses. If untreated, can progress to abscess.
Question 13: A postpartum patient on day 5 calls the clinic crying, stating she feels overwhelmed, cannot stop crying, and feels like a 'bad mother.' She denies thoughts of harming herself or her baby. The nurse should:
Answer: B — Baby blues (days 1–5) vs. postpartum depression (PPD, persists >2 weeks) must be distinguished. Day 5 crying with feelings of inadequacy warrants formal screening and prompt follow-up. The Edinburgh scale is the validated screening tool. Untreated PPD has serious consequences for mother and infant.
Question 14: A nurse assesses a newborn at 1 minute of life. Findings: HR 96, weak cry, some flexion, grimace to stimulation, blue hands and feet. What is the APGAR score and the appropriate response?
Answer: C — HR <100 = 1, weak cry = 1, some flexion = 1, grimace = 1, acrocyanosis = 1 → APGAR 5. An APGAR of 4–6 requires stimulation and supplemental O2. APGAR <4 requires positive pressure ventilation. Reassess at 5 minutes.
Question 15: A newborn's APGAR score is 3 at 5 minutes. The nurse's PRIORITY action is:
Answer: B — APGAR <4 at 5 minutes indicates severe neonatal depression. Begin PPV with 100% O2, call for neonatal resuscitation support, and prepare for possible intubation. Epinephrine is only given if HR <60 after 30 seconds of effective PPV.
Question 16: A nurse is assessing a 24-hour-old newborn. The infant has a bilirubin of 14 mg/dL and appears jaundiced. The mother is breastfeeding. The nurse's BEST action is:
Answer: B — Jaundice within 24 hours is pathological and requires immediate evaluation. Physiologic jaundice appears after 24 hours. Phototherapy is the primary treatment. Frequent feeding promotes bilirubin excretion. Bilirubin >25 mg/dL risks kernicterus (brain damage).
Question 17: A nurse assesses a newborn 2 hours after delivery and notes: respiratory rate 74/min, grunting, nasal flaring, and subcostal retractions. The nurse should:
Answer: C — Normal newborn RR is 30–60/min. RR >60 + grunting + flaring + retractions = respiratory distress. Common in preterm infants (surfactant deficiency). Requires immediate intervention: O2, possible CPAP, and surfactant therapy. Notify provider and NICU team.
Question 18: A nurse administers vitamin K (phytonadione) to a newborn within 1 hour of birth. A parent asks why this is necessary. The nurse's BEST response is:
Answer: B — Newborns have sterile guts and cannot produce vitamin K, which is essential for clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. Without it, newborns are at risk for vitamin K deficiency bleeding (VKDB), including intracranial hemorrhage. IM vitamin K is the standard of care at birth.
Question 19: A newborn's blood glucose is 38 mg/dL at 30 minutes of life. The infant appears jittery and has a weak cry. The nurse's PRIORITY action is:
Answer: B — Normal newborn glucose is 40–60 mg/dL. A level of 38 with symptoms (jitteriness, weak cry) = neonatal hypoglycemia. Initial treatment: early breastfeeding or dextrose gel. IV dextrose is reserved for symptomatic infants who cannot feed. Untreated hypoglycemia causes seizures and brain injury.
Question 20: A patient at 34 weeks with variable fetal heart rate decelerations is found to have decreased amniotic fluid on ultrasound. The nurse anticipates which fetal monitoring pattern as MOST likely associated with cord compression?
Answer: C — Variable decelerations are abrupt FHR drops that vary in timing, duration, and depth — they are caused by umbilical cord compression. Oligohydramnios (decreased amniotic fluid) reduces cushioning of the cord, making variables more frequent. Repositioning is the first nursing intervention.
What your score means
85% or above — Strong maternal and newborn knowledge
You can recognise pregnancy complications, manage labour emergencies, and assess newborns at an exam-ready level. Review any missed questions and move on.
70–84% — Close. Sharpen your complication recognition.
Most students in this range confuse similar-presenting conditions — placenta previa vs. abruptio placentae, preeclampsia vs. eclampsia — or miss the correct nursing priority in labour emergencies. Use the urgency bands below to drill those distinctions.
Below 70% — Work through all four cheat sheet sections.
Maternal and newborn questions reward pattern recognition. Work through the complication bands, APGAR visual, postpartum assessment strip, and newborn scan below. Then retake before your exam.
What’s covered in Maternal & Newborn
This category spans the full perinatal continuum — from first trimester complications through postpartum discharge. Questions are scenario-based: you’re given a clinical finding during labour, or a set of postpartum vitals, and must identify what’s happening and what to do first.
Antepartum Complications
Ectopic pregnancy, gestational hypertension, preeclampsia, placenta previa, abruptio placentae, gestational diabetes.
~8 questionsIntrapartum & Fetal Monitoring
Stages of labour, fetal heart rate patterns (early/late/variable decelerations), dystocia, cord prolapse, emergency interventions.
~7 questionsPostpartum Assessment
BUBBLE-HE assessment, uterine involution, lochia progression, postpartum haemorrhage, mastitis, postpartum depression.
~5 questionsNewborn Assessment
APGAR scoring, normal newborn vital signs and findings, hypoglycaemia, jaundice, respiratory distress, and newborn medications.
~5 questionsAll NCLEX-RN practice topics
Scored well here? Keep the momentum going. Each topic has 25 focused questions with full rationales.
How to master Maternal & Newborn
Know your bleeding emergencies by their key distinguishing feature
Placenta previa and abruptio placentae both cause bleeding but require different nursing responses. Previa: painless bright red bleeding, do NOT perform vaginal examination (can cause fatal haemorrhage), prepare for C-section. Abruption: sudden severe abdominal pain + dark/concealed bleeding + rigid uterus, fetal distress. The pain/no-pain distinction and the vaginal exam contraindication are the two most tested facts in this category.
Master fetal heart rate deceleration patterns
Early decelerations (mirror contractions, head compression) are normal and require no intervention. Late decelerations (after contraction peak, uteroplacental insufficiency) are always non-reassuring — reposition, O₂, stop oxytocin, notify provider. Variable decelerations (abrupt, cord compression, any timing) — reposition first, then assess. If late or variable decelerations persist: left lateral position, O₂ 8-10L by mask, IV fluid bolus, stop oxytocin, call provider.
Learn preeclampsia progression and magnesium sulfate nursing care
Preeclampsia becomes eclampsia when seizures occur. The warning signs (headache, visual disturbances, epigastric pain, hyperreflexia) are tested repeatedly. Magnesium sulfate is the treatment — know the therapeutic range (4–7 mEq/L), the toxicity signs (absent DTRs, respiratory depression, <12 breaths/min), and the antidote (calcium gluconate). Always assess DTRs before each dose of magnesium.
Practise APGAR scoring until it’s automatic
The APGAR is assessed at 1 and 5 minutes. Each of the 5 components (Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration) scores 0, 1, or 2. Scores 7–10 are normal. Scores 4–6 require stimulation. Scores 0–3 require immediate resuscitation. The most commonly tested mistake is confusing the scoring criteria for Appearance (skin colour) — a score of 2 requires completely pink, not just pink body with blue extremities (that’s 1).
Retake until you score 85%+ consistently
Maternal and newborn questions follow very predictable patterns once you know the key distinctions. Each wrong answer points to one specific concept — review that concept in the cheat sheets below, then retake. Most students see significant improvement after one targeted review session.
Quick Reference Cheat Sheets
Four visual formats covering pregnancy complications, APGAR scoring, postpartum assessment, and newborn findings — each designed to be scanned, not read.
Emergency
Eclampsia: Protect airway, pad side rails, O₂, call provider, give MgSO₄ or diazepam per order.
Uterine rupture: Sudden cessation of contractions + maternal shock + fetal distress — emergency C-section, IV access, blood products.
Notify Now
Abruption: Painful, rigid uterus, dark/concealed bleeding, fetal distress.
Severe preeclampsia: BP ≥160/110 + headache + visual changes + epigastric pain — MgSO₄, antihypertensives, assess DTRs before each dose.
PPH: Boggy uterus first → fundal massage → oxytocin → call provider.
Closely
GDM: Monitor BG, diet control, insulin if needed — fetal macrosomia risk.
Late decels: Left lateral position, O₂ 8–10 L/min mask, stop oxytocin, IV fluid bolus, notify provider.
Patterns
Late: After contraction peak · Uteroplacental insufficiency · Reposition L lateral, O₂, stop oxytocin, notify
Variable: Abrupt/V-shaped · Cord compression · Reposition first; amnioinfusion if ordered
Accelerations: Rise ≥15 bpm × 15 sec · Reassuring — reactive NST
Engorged (day 3–4)
Colostrum → milk
Descends 1 cm/day
Midline position
Deviated = full bladder
≥150 mL per void
No dysuria
Stool softeners
Assess haemorrhoids
Serosa: pink (4–10 d)
Alba: white (11–28 d)
Edges approximated
Minimal swelling
Calf pain/swelling
Ambulate early
Tearful, mood swings
Resolves by day 10
Frequently asked questions
Get your free Maternal & Newborn cheat sheet
Complication urgency bands, APGAR scoring grid, BUBBLE-HE postpartum reference, and newborn normal vs. abnormal scan — all on one printable page.
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