Free CNA Practice Test — 100 Questions with Answers [2026]

Answer: A — The normal resting heart rate for most adults ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute. Athletes may have a lower resting heart rate due to cardiovascular fitness.

Answer: B — Proper hand hygiene (handwashing or using hand sanitizer) is the single most effective measure to prevent the spread of infection in healthcare settings.

Answer: C — Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure that occurs when moving from a lying or sitting position to a standing position, often causing dizziness.

Answer: B — Patients should be repositioned at least every 2 hours to prevent pressure ulcers. This redistributes pressure and maintains blood flow to tissues.

Answer: B — ADL stands for Activities of Daily Living which includes basic self-care tasks such as bathing, dressing, eating, toileting, transferring, and continence.

Answer: C — ADL stands for Activities of Daily Living, which are the basic self-care tasks every person performs daily. These include bathing, dressing, eating, toileting, transferring (moving from bed to chair), and maintaining continence. CNAs spend most of their time assisting residents with ADLs, making this one of the most fundamental concepts in nursing assistant practice.

Answer: A — The normal oral temperature for adults is approximately 97.6°F to 99.6°F (36.4°C to 37.6°C), with 98.6°F (37°C) being the widely accepted average. A temperature above 100.4°F (38°C) is generally considered a fever and must be reported to the nurse. CNAs should also know that rectal temperatures read about 1°F higher and axillary (underarm) temperatures read about 1°F lower than oral readings.

Answer: B — Hypertension means high blood pressure — 'hyper' means excessive or above normal, and 'tension' refers to the pressure inside blood vessels. This is different from hypotension (low blood pressure), hyperglycemia (high blood sugar), and hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). Understanding medical prefixes like 'hyper' (high/above) and 'hypo' (low/below) helps CNAs quickly decode many medical terms they encounter on the job.

Answer: D — Dyspnea means difficulty breathing or shortness of breath — 'dys' means difficult or painful, and 'pnea' relates to breathing. This is a critical term to know because CNAs must recognize and immediately report breathing difficulties. Dysphagia means difficulty swallowing, dysuria means painful urination, and dystrophy refers to abnormal tissue development — learning the root words helps you tell these apart.

Answer: C — Supine means lying flat on the back, face up — this is one of the most commonly used positioning terms in healthcare. The opposite is prone (lying face down on the stomach), while lateral means lying on the side. Fowler's position is sitting up at an angle. CNAs must know all positioning terms because care plans and nurse instructions use them constantly.

Answer: C — Administering medications is strictly outside the CNA's scope of practice — only licensed nurses (RNs and LPNs/LVNs) are legally authorized to give medications. CNAs are trained and responsible for assisting with ADLs like bathing, measuring and recording vital signs, and observing and reporting any changes in a resident's condition. Performing tasks outside your scope can result in losing your certification and legal consequences.

Answer: C — Hand hygiene is ALWAYS the very first step before any resident contact — it is the single most important action to prevent the spread of infection in any healthcare setting. After washing hands, the CNA should then identify the resident (check ID bracelet), provide privacy (close door/curtain), explain the procedure, and then apply gloves if needed. This sequence protects both the resident and the CNA from harmful germs.

Answer: C — The most reliable method of identification is checking the resident's ID bracelet, which is physically attached to them and contains their name and other identifying information. Asking room numbers or reading door signs is unreliable because residents may switch rooms, and asking other staff introduces the risk of human error. Many facilities also require a second identifier such as asking the resident to state their name and date of birth.

Answer: A — NPO comes from the Latin phrase 'nil per os,' which translates to nothing by mouth — this means the resident cannot eat or drink anything at all, including water and ice chips. NPO is commonly ordered before surgeries, medical procedures, or certain lab tests, and also when there is a serious risk of aspiration. If a resident who is NPO asks for food or water, the CNA must explain the restriction kindly and report any concerns to the nurse.

Answer: A — Edema is the medical term for swelling that occurs when excess fluid becomes trapped in the body's tissues, most commonly seen in the feet, ankles, legs, and hands. It can be a sign of serious conditions like heart failure, kidney disease, or poor circulation. CNAs should report any new or worsening edema to the nurse immediately and should also note whether the edema is pitting (leaves an indentation when pressed) or non-pitting.

Answer: D — Proper hand hygiene — either washing with soap and water for at least 20 seconds or using alcohol-based hand sanitizer — is recognized by the CDC and WHO as the single most effective measure to prevent healthcare-associated infections. While gloves, masks, and surface cleaning are all important, none of them replace handwashing. CNAs should wash hands before and after every resident contact, after removing gloves, and after touching contaminated surfaces.

Answer: B — Always wipe from front to back (from the urethra toward the rectum) when performing perineal care on a female resident. This direction prevents bacteria from the rectal and anal area from being introduced into the urethra and vaginal area, which is a leading cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Each wipe should use a clean area of the washcloth, and the CNA should use gentle but thorough strokes.

Answer: A — Every resident has the legal right to refuse any care, including bathing — this is protected under the Residents' Bill of Rights established by OBRA. The CNA must respect this decision without arguing, pressuring, or forcing the resident. The proper response is to report the refusal to the nurse so it can be documented in the chart and an alternative plan (such as offering a bath later or a sponge bath) can be considered.

Answer: C — Yelling at a resident is verbal abuse, and CNAs are mandated reporters — meaning they are legally required to report any suspected abuse, neglect, or exploitation immediately. The report should go to the nurse, supervisor, or through the facility's abuse reporting protocol. Waiting, ignoring, or confronting the abuser in front of the resident are all wrong — delays allow further harm, and confrontation may escalate the situation or traumatize the resident.

Answer: C — The blood pressure cuff should be placed directly on the bare skin of the upper arm, approximately 1 inch (2.5 cm) above the antecubital space (the inner bend of the elbow). Placing it over clothing can produce falsely high readings by interfering with sound transmission and cuff compression. The cuff should be snug but not too tight — you should be able to fit one finger between the cuff and the arm.

Answer: C — Respirations should be counted while the resident does not know they are being observed because people unconsciously change their breathing pattern when they are aware it is being monitored. The best technique is to count respirations immediately after taking the pulse while still holding the resident's wrist — the resident will think you are still counting the pulse. Always count for a full 60 seconds for the most accurate result.

Answer: B — The radial pulse is taken by gently placing the pads of the index and middle fingers over the radial artery, located on the thumb side of the inner wrist. Never use the thumb because it has its own pulse (the princeps pollicis artery), which can be confused with the resident's heartbeat and give an inaccurate reading. Apply light to moderate pressure — pressing too hard can compress the artery and make the pulse undetectable.

Answer: B — Proper body mechanics require bending at the knees (never the waist), keeping the back straight and aligned, holding the object close to the body, and using the large powerful muscles of the legs to do the lifting. Bending at the waist puts enormous strain on the lower back, holding objects far away increases leverage forces on the spine, and twisting while lifting is the most common cause of back injuries in healthcare workers.

Answer: A — Clear liquids are fluids you can see through — apple juice qualifies because it is transparent. Milk is opaque, orange juice with pulp contains solid particles, and tomato soup is not transparent. Other examples of clear liquids include water, broth, clear gelatin (Jell-O), popsicles, tea, and clear sodas. This diet is often ordered before procedures or after surgery to give the digestive system rest while maintaining hydration.

Answer: A — Canned soup is extremely high in sodium — a single can may contain over 800 mg of sodium, which could be most of a resident's daily allowance on a restricted diet. The canning and preservation process uses large amounts of salt. Fresh fruits, plain grilled meats, and steamed vegetables (prepared without added salt) are all naturally low in sodium and appropriate for this diet.

Answer: B — For I&O measurement, any food item that is liquid at room temperature is counted as fluid intake — this includes gelatin, ice cream, soup, popsicles, and ice chips. Mashed potatoes remain solid at room temperature even though they are soft, so they are NOT counted as fluid intake. Accurately tracking I&O is critical because it helps the healthcare team monitor hydration status, kidney function, and fluid balance.

Answer: A — Dentures are expensive and very fragile — lining the sink with a washcloth or filling it partially with water provides a cushion to prevent breakage if the dentures are accidentally dropped. Hot water must never be used because it can permanently warp the acrylic material. Regular toothpaste is too abrasive and scratches the surface, creating places for bacteria to grow. Dentures must be stored in water or denture solution overnight to prevent them from drying out and cracking.

Answer: C — A Stage 1 pressure ulcer presents as intact skin with non-blanchable redness over a bony prominence — meaning the redness does NOT turn white when you press on it with your finger and then release. This is the earliest and most treatable stage of pressure injury. The CNA should immediately report this finding to the nurse, reposition the resident to relieve pressure on the area, and never massage the reddened skin because massage can cause further damage to the already compromised tissue.

Answer: A — The CNA should reposition the resident immediately to relieve pressure on the coccyx and report the redness to the nurse right away because it is an early sign of pressure ulcer development. Massaging reddened areas is harmful because it can damage the already fragile tissue and capillaries underneath. Donut-shaped cushions are no longer recommended because they concentrate pressure around the edges of the ring rather than relieving it. Early intervention is critical to preventing further skin breakdown.

Answer: A — TED stockings must be applied in the morning BEFORE the resident gets out of bed, while the legs are least swollen from being elevated during sleep. Once a person stands, sits, or walks, gravity causes blood to pool in the lower legs and the legs begin to swell, making the stockings less effective at compression and much harder to put on properly. The stockings work by providing graduated compression that helps push blood back up toward the heart, preventing blood clots.

Answer: D — Dysphagia means difficulty swallowing, and residents with this condition must be positioned in high Fowler's (sitting as upright as possible, 60-90 degrees) during all meals and for at least 30 minutes after eating. This position uses gravity to help food and liquids travel safely down the esophagus into the stomach. Lying flat or in a reclined position greatly increases the risk of aspiration — where food or liquid enters the airway and lungs — which can cause a life-threatening aspiration pneumonia.

Answer: D — Fowler's or high Fowler's position (sitting upright at 45-90 degrees) is the best position for CHF residents because it allows the lungs to expand more fully and uses gravity to reduce the amount of blood returning to an already overworked heart. Lying flat causes fluid to redistribute into the lungs (a condition called orthopnea), making breathing extremely difficult. Trendelenburg position would make this even worse by sending more blood toward the chest.

Answer: B — The urinary catheter drainage bag must ALWAYS be kept below the level of the bladder so that urine flows downward by gravity. If the bag is raised above the bladder, urine can flow backward from the contaminated bag into the sterile bladder, causing a serious urinary tract infection (called a CAUTI). The tubing should never be kinked, clamped, looped, or placed under the resident because these can all block urine flow and also create infection risk.

Answer: C — Catheter care requires cleaning from the urethral meatus (insertion site) outward and downward along the catheter tubing for at least 4 inches, using a clean area of the washcloth with each stroke. This direction moves bacteria AWAY from the body, which is essential for infection prevention. Cleaning toward the body would push bacteria into the urethra and bladder. Catheter care should be performed at least once per shift and during perineal care, not only when visible soiling is present.

Answer: D — Mechanical lifts ALWAYS require a minimum of two trained staff members for safe operation — one person operates the lift mechanism while the other guides the resident's body and ensures safety throughout the transfer. Operating alone violates safety protocols and puts both the resident and the CNA at extreme risk of injury. The resident should never hold onto the metal arms, and the lift should be raised only high enough to clear the surface to maintain a low center of gravity during transport.

Answer: A — The wheelchair should be positioned alongside (parallel to) the bed on the resident's strong or unaffected side, locked with brakes engaged and footrests swung away. This positioning allows the resident to lead with their stronger leg and use their stronger arm for support during the pivot transfer, maximizing their independence and safety. Placing the wheelchair on the weak side would force the resident to bear weight on their impaired limb, greatly increasing the risk of a fall.

Answer: C — The cane must always be held on the OPPOSITE side of the weak or injured leg — so if the right leg is weak, the cane goes in the left hand. This biomechanical principle creates a wider base of support and allows the resident to shift weight more effectively by leaning slightly toward the cane. The cane and the weak leg move forward together, followed by the strong leg. Holding the cane on the same side as the weak leg actually reduces stability.

Answer: A — The golden rule of dressing is: dress the weak or affected side FIRST, and when undressing, remove the strong side FIRST. This minimizes pain, strain, and range of motion required of the affected limb. For example, slide the shirt sleeve over the weak left arm first, then bring the shirt around the back and slip the right arm through. When undressing, reverse the process — strong arm out first, then gently slide the sleeve off the weak arm.

Answer: A — Food must always be placed on the unaffected (stronger) side of the mouth because a stroke often paralyzes or weakens the facial muscles, tongue, and throat on the affected side. Placing food on the paralyzed right side means the resident cannot properly chew or move the food to swallow safely, dramatically increasing the risk of choking and aspiration. The CNA should also check the affected side of the mouth for 'pocketed' food that the resident may not feel.

Answer: D — The clock method is a technique that describes the location of each food item on the plate as if the plate were a clock face — for example, 'Your chicken is at 6 o'clock, peas are at 3 o'clock, and mashed potatoes are at 9 o'clock, with your drink at 1 o'clock.' This empowers the visually impaired resident to eat independently with dignity rather than being fed. The CNA should also describe the meal components, offer to open containers, and position utensils consistently.

Answer: A — Logrolling is a specialized turning technique that keeps the entire spine in straight alignment by moving the head, torso, and legs as one unit — like rolling a log — without any twisting or bending of the spine. It is essential for residents with spinal cord injuries, back surgeries, spinal fractures, or any condition where the spine must remain stabilized. This technique always requires at least two (ideally three) staff members working in coordination to move the resident safely.

Answer: A — An occupied bed is made while the resident remains in the bed — the CNA loosens the soiled linens, gently rolls the resident to one side (with side rail up for safety), tucks the dirty linen against the resident's back, places the clean bottom sheet on the exposed half and tucks it in, then rolls the resident over to the clean side, removes the soiled linen, and finishes making the other half. This method maintains safety, minimizes discomfort, and preserves the resident's dignity throughout the procedure.

Answer: B — Residents with dementia repeat questions because their short-term memory is impaired — they genuinely do not remember asking the question or hearing the answer just moments ago. The CNA should answer patiently and kindly each time, using a calm reassuring tone, without showing frustration. Telling them they already asked, ignoring them, or asking them to write it down causes confusion, anxiety, and emotional distress, and violates the resident's right to be treated with dignity and respect.

Answer: B — Under the Residents' Bill of Rights protected by OBRA, residents are entitled to keep and use personal possessions in their room, have their property treated with respect, and have a homelike environment. They also have the right to privacy in all communications (phone calls and mail cannot be monitored), to be addressed by their preferred name (never by room number), and to move freely within the facility. These rights exist to preserve dignity, autonomy, and quality of life.

Answer: C — Residents have the legal and ethical right to have their religious, spiritual, and cultural practices respected — including dietary requirements such as kosher, halal, vegetarian, fasting periods, or other faith-based food rules. The CNA's responsibility is to communicate these needs to the nurse and dietary department so that appropriate meals can be provided by the facility. Forcing, pressuring, or encouraging a resident to eat against their religious beliefs is a direct violation of their rights.

Answer: B — Completing advance directives involves legal documentation that is beyond the CNA's scope of practice — the CNA should never attempt to fill out, interpret, or advise on legal documents. The correct action is to promptly notify the nurse, who will arrange for appropriate personnel (social worker, patient advocate, or legal representative) to assist the resident. The CNA should acknowledge the resident's request respectfully and assure them that the right person will help them.

Answer: A — The care plan is an individualized, person-centered document that outlines specific goals, interventions, and approaches tailored to each resident's unique physical, emotional, and social needs. It is developed by the interdisciplinary team (nurse, doctor, therapist, dietitian, social worker) with input from the resident and family. The CNA must read, understand, and follow each resident's care plan closely because it guides every aspect of daily care — from how to position the resident to what diet they receive.

Answer: D — Neglect is the failure to provide necessary care, services, or supervision that results in harm or risk of harm to a resident. Not repositioning an immobile resident every 2 hours can lead to painful, potentially life-threatening pressure ulcers — this constitutes neglect even if it was unintentional. CNAs can face serious consequences for neglect including termination, placement on the abuse registry, loss of CNA certification, and criminal charges.

Answer: B — A restraint-free environment emphasizes exhausting every possible alternative before any restraint is even considered. OBRA regulations mandate that restraints may only be used as an absolute last resort, with a specific physician's order, for the least amount of time, and must be regularly reassessed. Alternatives include bed alarms, motion sensors, non-slip footwear, lowered beds, increased supervision, activity programs, and addressing the underlying cause of unsafe behavior such as pain, anxiety, or toileting needs.

Answer: D — A midstream clean-catch specimen requires the resident to first begin urinating into the toilet for a few seconds to flush bacteria and debris from the urethra, then catch the middle portion of the stream into the sterile specimen container, and finish urinating into the toilet. This technique minimizes contamination from skin bacteria and provides the most accurate specimen for laboratory testing. The perineal area must be cleaned with antiseptic wipes before collection, and the inside of the container must not be touched.

Answer: A — Cloudy, foul-smelling urine is one of the most common signs of a urinary tract infection (UTI), which is especially prevalent in elderly residents and those with catheters. Normal urine should be clear to pale yellow with only a mild ammonia-like odor. The CNA must report this finding to the nurse immediately so a urinalysis can be ordered and treatment can begin promptly — untreated UTIs in the elderly can rapidly progress to confusion, sepsis, and life-threatening complications.

Answer: D — Dark, concentrated urine is a hallmark sign of dehydration because the kidneys conserve water by producing less urine that is more concentrated with waste products. Other signs of dehydration include dry mouth and mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor (skin tents when pinched), sunken eyes, confusion, dizziness, rapid pulse, and low blood pressure. Elderly residents are at particularly high risk for dehydration because their thirst sensation decreases with age.

Answer: B — When a resident's fluid output (urine, vomit, drainage, perspiration) consistently exceeds their fluid intake (drinks, soups, IV fluids), they are losing more fluid than they are replacing — this creates a negative fluid balance and puts them at significant risk for dehydration. The CNA must report this imbalance to the nurse promptly so interventions can be started, such as encouraging fluid intake, adjusting the care plan, or alerting the physician for possible IV fluid replacement.

Answer: B — The chain of infection consists of six links: (1) causative agent (the germ), (2) reservoir (where the germ lives), (3) portal of exit (how it leaves the reservoir), (4) mode of transmission (how it travels), (5) portal of entry (how it enters a new host), and (6) susceptible host. Proper hand hygiene is NOT a link in the chain — rather, it is one of the most effective methods used to BREAK the chain and stop infection from spreading. Understanding this chain helps CNAs know where to intervene.

Answer: B — The correct CDC-recommended order for PPE removal is: (1) gloves first (they are the most contaminated item), (2) gown (touching only the inside), (3) exit the room, then (4) mask or respirator (removed by the straps, never touching the front). Hand hygiene must be performed after removing gloves and again after all PPE is removed. This specific sequence is designed to minimize the risk of self-contamination — touching a contaminated glove to your face while removing a mask would defeat the purpose of the PPE.

Answer: A — The type and combination of PPE required varies based on the specific isolation precaution ordered: Contact precautions (for MRSA, C. diff) typically require gown and gloves; Droplet precautions (for influenza, pertussis) require a surgical mask; Airborne precautions (for tuberculosis, measles, COVID) require an N95 respirator or PAPR. The CNA must always check the precaution signage posted outside the resident's room before entering and follow the instructions exactly — using the wrong PPE provides a false sense of protection.

Answer: A — A rectal thermometer should be inserted gently only 1 to 1.5 inches into the rectum for an adult (0.5 to 1 inch for a child or infant). Inserting it deeper risks perforating (puncturing) the delicate rectal wall, which is a life-threatening emergency. The thermometer must be well-lubricated with water-soluble lubricant before insertion, and the resident should be positioned in the left Sims' position (left side-lying with upper knee bent). The CNA must hold the thermometer in place during the entire reading — never let go.

Answer: D — In a fire emergency, the CNA follows the RACE protocol: R — Rescue any person in immediate danger (closest to the fire); A — Activate the fire alarm (or confirm it has been activated); C — Contain the fire by closing all doors and windows to limit oxygen and smoke spread; E — Extinguish the fire if small and safe to do so, or Evacuate. Rescuing residents in immediate danger is always the first priority. Opening windows would feed oxygen to the fire and make it worse.

Answer: B — When a CNA discovers a resident on the floor, they must NOT move the resident under any circumstances because there could be a fracture, head injury, spinal cord injury, or internal bleeding that is not immediately visible. Moving an injured person can cause permanent paralysis or worsen bleeding. The CNA should call for the nurse immediately, stay with the resident, keep them calm, observe for injuries (bleeding, deformity, pain, level of consciousness), and document exactly how the resident was found.

Answer: D — A resident who cannot cough, speak, or breathe has a COMPLETE airway obstruction — this is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate action. The CNA should perform abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver) by standing behind the resident, placing a fist above the navel and below the breastbone, and delivering quick upward thrusts until the object is expelled or the resident becomes unconscious. Never give water during choking as it can push the object deeper. Never delay — brain damage begins within 4-6 minutes without oxygen.

Answer: B — If a resident becomes faint or begins to fall during ambulation, the CNA should immediately widen their stance, hold the resident close to their body, bend at the knees, and gently ease the resident down to the floor in a controlled manner. Never try to hold up or catch a falling resident completely — this can cause serious injury to both the resident and the CNA. Once the resident is safely on the floor, call for help, check for injuries, monitor vital signs, and do not move them until the nurse assesses them.

Answer: A — Petroleum-based products (Vaseline, certain lotions, lip balms) are highly flammable and must NEVER be used near oxygen equipment — they can ignite and cause severe facial burns. Only water-based lubricants are safe for moisturizing dry lips and nasal passages of residents on oxygen. The CNA must never adjust the oxygen flow rate because this requires a specific physician's order — too much oxygen can be as dangerous as too little, especially in COPD patients. Smoking anywhere near oxygen is absolutely prohibited due to extreme fire and explosion risk.

Answer: B — After a total hip replacement, there are three critical movement restrictions to prevent the new hip joint from dislocating: (1) do NOT cross the legs at any time, (2) do NOT bend the hip beyond 90 degrees (no leaning forward past a right angle), and (3) do NOT internally rotate the affected leg (turn the toes inward). An abductor pillow is placed between the legs specifically to maintain proper hip alignment. A raised toilet seat prevents excessive hip flexion. Ankle pumps are encouraged to promote circulation and prevent blood clots.

Answer: C — Subjective observations are symptoms reported by the resident that cannot be directly measured, seen, or verified by the CNA — examples include pain, nausea, dizziness, anxiety, itching, and shortness of breath. Objective observations are signs that can be measured, counted, or observed — such as vital sign readings, food intake percentages, skin color, swelling, or vomiting. CNAs must accurately report BOTH types of observations to the nurse, using the resident's exact words for subjective complaints (e.g., 'Resident states she feels dizzy and nauseous').

Answer: C — The CNA should report the incident to the nurse and have the hearing aid properly cleaned, inspected for damage, and tested according to facility protocol before returning it to the resident. Simply wiping it off may not remove all bacteria and does not check for internal damage that could affect function or safety. Hearing aids are expensive electronic devices — never soak them in water or any liquid as this will destroy the electronic components. An incident report may also need to be completed per facility policy.

Answer: D — The 78-year-old has MULTIPLE compounding fall risk factors: advanced age (age-related muscle weakness, balance changes, decreased vision), blood pressure medication (can cause orthostatic hypotension and dizziness, especially when standing), and impaired mobility requiring a walker. Fall risk increases dramatically when multiple risk factors combine. The CNA should ensure the call light is within reach, the walker is accessible, the path is clear of obstacles, non-slip footwear is worn, and the bed is in the lowest locked position.

Answer: C — Postmortem care positions the body supine (face up) with one pillow under the head — the slight elevation helps prevent blood from pooling in the face and causing discoloration before the family views the body. The body should be treated with the utmost dignity and respect. Identification bands are NOT removed — they must remain on the body for proper identification at the funeral home. Eyes and mouth are gently closed, dentures are inserted if possible, and the body is bathed and dressed in a clean gown per facility policy.

Answer: A — Range of motion (ROM) exercises move each joint through its full natural arc of movement to maintain flexibility, prevent stiffness, and avoid contractures — the permanent, painful shortening and tightening of muscles, tendons, and joints that occurs when they are not moved regularly. ROM exercises are especially critical for immobile or bed-bound residents. There are three types: active (resident does it alone), active-assistive (CNA helps), and passive (CNA performs all movement). ROM does not significantly build muscle mass, affect blood pressure, or cause weight loss.

Answer: C — The left Sims' position (also called the left lateral position) is standard for enemas and rectal examinations. The resident lies on their left side with the left leg slightly bent and the right leg sharply flexed toward the chest, which exposes the rectal area. This specific left-side positioning is used because it follows the natural anatomical curve of the sigmoid colon and rectum, allowing enema solution to flow with gravity deeper into the colon for maximum effectiveness.

Answer: C — Formal delegation of nursing tasks is a legal responsibility that belongs exclusively to licensed nurses (RNs and in some states LPNs). The licensed nurse assesses the task, determines if it is appropriate for the CNA's training and competency level, delegates it with clear instructions, and retains accountability for the outcome. A CNA may help orient or guide a newer CNA on familiar tasks, but the licensed nurse is ultimately responsible for ensuring all delegated tasks are within scope and properly supervised.